I came across this question in a website today. We all know, but let us look at 2 Samuel 21:19 and its parallel verse 1 Chronicles 20:5.
We shall see 2 Samuel 21:19 in various versions:
(KJV) And there was again a battle in Gob with the Philistines, where Elhanan the son of Jaare-oregim, a Bethlehemite, slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.
(CUV) 又在歌伯与非利士人打仗，伯利恒人雅雷俄珥金的儿子伊勒哈难杀了迦特人歌利亚。这人的枪杆粗如织布的机轴。
(ESV) And there was again war with the Philistines at Gob, and Elhanan the son of Jaare-oregim, the Bethlehemite, struck down Goliath the Gittite, the shaft of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.
We shall see 1 Chronicles 20:
(KJV) And there was war again with the Philistines; and Elhanan the son of Jair slew Lahmi the brother of Goliath the Gittite, whose spear staff was like a weaver's beam.
(CUV) 又与非利士人打仗。睚珥的儿子伊勒哈难杀了迦特人歌利亚的兄弟拉哈米；这人的枪杆粗如织布的机轴。
(ESV) And there was again war with the Philistines, and Elhanan the son of Jair struck down Lahmi the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the shaft of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.
The website seized this text as an example of error in modern translations and declared that "Translators love money more than God, so they copy each other's errors to protect their jobs and keep new versions coming every year. This verse was correctly translated 400 years ago in the King James Version, but translators would have to get a real job, if they endorsed the KJV."
If you look at 2 Samuel 21:19 in any KJV Bible in print, you will see that "the brother of" is in italics. That means it is not found in the original text, but supplied by the translators. But the King James worshippers, who love King James more than King Jesus, choose to endorse the action of the KJV translators, ignoring the warning of the Word of God not to add to or subtract from it (Deuteronomy 4:2, Deuteronomy 12:32, Proverbs 30:6, Revelation 22:18-19).
As for the harmonising of the two verses, there are many explanations offered and you can easily google for them.
1 comment:
I'll all for Bibles explaining when there's a problem with the text and how it should be solved, but for transparency's sake any deviation from the original manuscripts should really be confined to footnotes.
"The website seized this text as an example of error in modern translations... If you look at 2 Samuel 21:19 in any KJV Bible in print, you will see that 'the brother of' is in italics. That means it is not found in the original text, but supplied by the translators."
So the KJV admits and indicates that this isn't in the original manuscripts, but the website still says that translations that leave it out translate the verse incorrectly? What do they think "translate" means?
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